Certified Physician Assistant - Orthopaedic Surgery Exam Prep
Free practice questions

Free PA-COS Practice Questions

10 exam-style questions with answers and explanations, straight from our 1,030-question bank. Tap an answer to check yourself. When you're ready, take the scored version in the free practice test.

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The PA-COS exam has 120 questions and runs 2 hours.

These 10 free PA-COS questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Physician Assistant - Orthopaedic Surgery blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.

Domain 2: Fractures/Dislocations 25% of exam

Question 1

A 38-year-old sustains a closed midshaft humeral fracture in a low-energy fall. Before reduction, he cannot extend his wrist or fingers and has reduced sensation in the dorsal first web space. Alignment after reduction is acceptable, the hand is well perfused, and the neurologic findings are unchanged. During initial nonoperative fracture care, how should the nerve deficit be managed?

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Correct answer: B - Provide a wrist-extension splint and monitor motor and sensory recovery serially.

Question 2

An independently mobile 78-year-old remains unable to bear weight after a ground-level fall. Hip radiographs and a noncontrast CT show no fracture. Analgesia relieves her pain at rest, but passive hip rotation still produces deep groin pain. MRI is available today and she has no contraindication. Which study should resolve the remaining concern for an occult fracture?

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Correct answer: B - MRI of the affected hip without intravenous contrast.

Domain 3: Infectious Diseases and Connective Tissue Disorders 5% of exam

Question 3

At a bone-health visit, a 72-year-old postmenopausal woman has a femoral-neck T-score of -1.9 and no prior fragility fracture. Her U.S.-adapted FRAX calculation gives a 10-year hip-fracture probability of 4.6% and a major osteoporotic-fracture probability of 16%. Under Bone Health and Osteoporosis Foundation treatment thresholds, how should these results affect the discussion?

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Correct answer: C - Her hip-fracture probability supports offering pharmacologic fracture prevention.

Domain 4: Joint Disorders 20% of exam

Question 4

At a revision-arthroplasty consultation, a 69-year-old reports six months of increasing pain and recurrent swelling in a knee replaced three years earlier. He had functioned well until these symptoms began. He is afebrile, has no inflammatory arthritis, and has received no recent antibiotics. There is a new tibial-component radiolucency. ESR is 52 mm/hour; CRP is 26 mg/L. Synovial fluid contains 6,200 leukocytes/µL with 88% neutrophils, no crystals, and a negative Gram stain. Cultures are pending. Which conclusion is best supported before revision planning?

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Correct answer: A - Periprosthetic joint infection is likely despite the negative Gram stain.

Question 5

"The MRI says the meniscus is torn, so doesn't it need an operation?" asks a 61-year-old with gradually developing knee pain. Weight-bearing films show moderate medial-compartment osteoarthritis; MRI shows a degenerative horizontal meniscal tear. She has full extension, no displaced fragment, and no episodes of true locking. She has tried occasional ibuprofen but no rehabilitation. Which recommendation best addresses her current problem?

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Correct answer: D - Begin exercise-based therapy with quadriceps strengthening and activity modification.

Domain 5: Pediatric 4% of exam

Question 6

A 13-year-old boy has had three weeks of knee pain and a limp, followed today by sudden worsening that prevents walking even with crutches. The knee is nontender, but the leg rests externally rotated and gentle hip movement causes severe pain. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is suspected. While urgent orthopaedic care is arranged, which radiographic positioning is appropriate?

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Correct answer: A - AP pelvis and cross-table lateral of the affected hip, without forced hip movement.

Domain 6: Preoperative, Postoperative, and Complication Management 7% of exam

Question 7

Thirty-six hours after fixation of a femoral shaft fracture, a previously alert 27-year-old becomes confused and tachypneic. Oxygen saturation is 85% on room air, temperature is 38.3°C, and chest imaging shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates. New petechiae are present on the upper chest and conjunctivae. Which postoperative complication best unifies the respiratory, neurologic, and skin findings?

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Correct answer: A - Fat embolism syndrome.

Domain 7: Soft-Tissue Injuries and Disorders 25% of exam

Question 8

Seven hours after a tibial shaft fracture, a patient's pain continues to increase despite analgesia and complete release of the splint and padding. The anterior compartment is tense, and passive toe flexion causes marked pain. Blood pressure is 106/58 mm Hg; anterior compartment pressure is 40 mm Hg. Pedal pulses remain palpable. Which interpretation and action fit these findings?

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Correct answer: D - The pressure difference is 18 mm Hg; proceed to immediate fasciotomy.

Question 9

An anterior drawer examination appears abnormal after a driver's flexed knee strikes a dashboard. With both knees flexed to 90 degrees, however, the injured tibial plateau starts posterior to the opposite side. Pulling it forward restores the normal tibiofemoral relationship and produces a firm endpoint. Lachman testing is symmetric. What accounts for the misleading anterior drawer result?

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Correct answer: C - Reduction of a posteriorly sagged tibia caused by posterior cruciate insufficiency.

Question 10

Two days after a ball forces his fingertip into flexion, a 34-year-old has a 25-degree distal interphalangeal extension lag that corrects fully with passive extension. The skin is intact, proximal interphalangeal motion is normal, and radiographs show neither fracture nor joint subluxation. He can comply with splint care. Which initial treatment instruction is correct?

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Correct answer: C - Maintain continuous DIP extension for 6-8 weeks while allowing PIP motion.

The rest of the PA-COS blueprint

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